Occidental culture

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We have the subject-object-dualism. In order to overcome the subject-object-dualism Martin Heidegger (1889-1976) established his existence-philosophical concept „In-der-Welt-Sein“ (“To-be-in-the-World”) as an existential of human beings’ „Dasein“, as a human existence in the world. **

I think the subject/object dualism is one of the fundamental problems. Heidegger as the last great philosopher tried to overcome the problem with his „Existenz(ial)-Ontologie“ („existenc[e]ial ontology“), also called „Fundamentalontologie“ („fundamental ontology“), especially with his concept „In-der-Welt-Sein“ („To-Be-in-the-World“) as an existential of human beings' „Dasein“, as a human existence in the world. (**). I really don't know whether Heidegger succeeded in that case. Probably it is not possible to resolve that problem.

I think that the subject/object dualism is one of the greatest philosophical problems - perhaps even the greatest.

How can we and especially each of us ever experience whether the subjective or the objective side is the “truth”?

What makes me sure that I and the experiences I make with myself “really”exist, or the world and the experiences I make with it “really”exist? And especially: Which of both sides is true, or are both true? Which? (1.) The subjective one? (2.) The objective one? (3.) Both?

Do I think, or does the world think in me, or are both sides true? Is the world my will and my representation / idea (cp. Arthur Schopenhauer, „Die Welt als Wille und Vorstellung“ [„The World as Will and Representation“], 1818), or merely nothing but my thoughts, or both?

Phlilosophemes or theories can be right or true without any solution of the subject/object problem because we human beings merely decide and say this or that is true/right or false/wrong, but we probably do not know what is true/right or false/wrong. That decisions always change, but also repeat or recapitulate somehow, and only sometimes there is a moment of more wisdom. Maybe that this moment of more wisdom (of some philosophers or other thinkers - of course) can resolve the problem of the subject/object dualism, but it is possible too that this moment of more wisdom also indicates that the problem of the subject/object dualism can probably not be resolved.

Please don’t forget: We - the human beings - decide or say that this or that is true/right or false/wrong. And we believe in that - more or less. Ask some members of this forum, whether they really believe in logic or not. Most of them would say: “Yes, but ...”, and with their “but” they actually say “No(, but ...)”, because they would rather believe in religious things, especially the so called “atheists”.

So there ist merely a small group of human beings who search for a solution for the problem of the subject/object dualism. And currently the average IQ of the human beings is declining. What does that mean? In any case: It also indicates that the most human beings do not want wisdom, but religion and other things which make them stupid. Or, in the orther case, they want wisdom, but are not wanted to want wisdom, but religion and other things which make them stupid.

But the greatest barrier is the human Geist itself. How can we really know that a subject “is” and that a object “is” without thinking that they are always different or even not existent?

Many people don't think very much, but if (if!) they really think that something exists, they do it in two different ways: (1) subjectively, so they think existence has merely to do with the thinking subject, and (2) objectively, so they think existence is something which has nothing to do with the thinking subject. If people think they can perceive the object, they actually have to ask themselves, whether that object exists without any subject or because of the existence of the perceiving subject, so that the object does not exist. I am speaking about the subject/object dualism. Is subjectivity or objectivity that what we call „reality“ or is it both, so that there is no solution for the subject/object dualism?

If you think that all around you - everything except you - merely “exists” because of the fact that you are perceiving and thinking, then you can also say that there is nothing that “exists” except you, so you are either merely a subject without any object or both subject and object (or even: there is no subject and no object - because there is no difference between them).

Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz once asked:

Warum ist überhaupt Seiendes und nicht vielmehr Nichts?
(“Why is there anything [being] at all rather than nothing[ness]?”)
(„Seiendes“ is derived from „sein“ [„to be“] and means an identical mode of „being“.)

Do you know the answer?

Or think about the Indian culture/civilisation - the so called “Hinduism” - and its concept of “nirvana”. Do you exactly know what is meant by that? Non-Indian and Indian people have a different understanding of “nirvana”.. Is it nothingness, nonentity? (That is the way how Western people understand “nirvana”.) What is it?

What do you think when you are anxious and don't know the reason - the cause - for that fact? What or who “affects” you then? Is it the nothingness? And if so, then the nothingness also “affects”, but is it then really nothingness?

We can think the nothingness and the difference between subject and object. Is this difference the nothingness? Or is it even the “affectance”? Or both? Are they the same (see above) or at least similar? If so, then we can't know anything of them because it is the definition - the linguistic convention or the lingusitic laws - of the word “nothing” to be nothing at all, and the noun for that is “nothingness”.

You can't just brush aside our ability for thinking the nothingness and the subject/object dualism (**).

Nothingness has no affect, else it would be no nothingness. And if nothingness were no nothingness, then we would have to find another word for nothingness, and we soon would have find one because we can think nothingness. Nothingness has no affect, but exists, at least in our thoughts, and our thoughts exist as well. That all depends on the definition, so your definition has to be a different one - and is a different one (I know) -, but if your definition is right, then you have to exclude nothingness from your definition of “existence”.

Remember that I am philophising, and the philosophy has not resolved the problem of the subject/object dualism. The science can't resolve it anyway, and I think the philosophy probably neither.

It is possible that the nothingness is God, or the unmoved mover, or the unaffected affect.

The sentence “I am” and the sentence “I am not” can not be proven scientifically. Therefore, but not only therefore, philosophy is necessary. Is philosophy able to answer the questions: “Am I?”, “Am I not?”, “Is anything outside of me?”, “Is nothing outside of me?” ...?

Science is not able to answer that questions (and many other questions). Philosophy has found some answers - the history of philosophy has made that clear. But its answers are not very much convincing.

If one says ”I think”, or “I am aware”, or “I am”, then this one says something about a subject (“I”) and about an object (“think”, “am aware”, “am”) or a predicate. The problem of the “subjet/object-dualism” is that it is not exactly determinable whether the subjct exists or not and whether the object exists or not. The former is primarily a philosophical, the latter mainly a scientific, both together again a philosophical problem. Concerning this matter the doubter Descartes proved nothing. About 1¼ centuries before Descartes another doubter - Martin Luther - founded a Protestant Christian confession: the Evangelical Lutheran. Luther did not try to prove the existence of the subject, but sought the answer in belief / faith..

Maybe you are not alive! Maybe we all are not alive! Maybe only philosophy is alive! Maybe only thinking is alive!

Can this be true? Can it be a fact? Can we know it? Can it be objective? Or is it just subjective?

Maybe we can never overcome the subject/object dualism.

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